Saturday, September 25, 2010

TEST PAPER 2

SCIENCE TEST PAPER 2

[100 MARKS, FULL COURSE]


PART : A



There are 50 questions. Choose appropriate alternative for each question and accordingly mark the answer in the separately given OMR sheet by black-ink pen. Each question carries 1 mark.

  1. The most important property of nanomaterials is_____.
    [A] force [B] friction [C} pressure [D] temperature
  2. The refractive index of a rarer medium with respect to a denser medium is_____.
    [A] 1 [B] greater than 1 [C] smaller than 1 [D] negative
  3. _____ is not a primary colour of white light.
    [A] Red [B] Blue [C] Violet [D] Green
  4. Work done on an electric charge is stored in it as_____.
    [A] potential energy [B] kinetic energy [C] thermal energy [D] nuclear energy
  5. Which of the following is not correct for electrical work?
    [A] W = VQ [B] W = VIt [C] W = I2Rt [D] W = I2RQ
  6. How many electrons should flow in one second to contribute electric current of 1 ampere?
    [A] 6.25 x 1018 [B] 6.25 x 1019 [C] 1.60 x 1018 [D] 1.60 x 1018
  7. The magnetic field of a solenoid is quite similar to that of_____
    [A] a straight conductor [B] a horse-shoe magnet 
[C] a bar magnet         [D] magnetic needle
  8. The insulation cover on the earth wire is_____.
    [A] red [B] black [C] green [D] white
  9. _____ is the unit of frequency of alternating current.
    [A] Weber [B] Hertz [C] Tesla [D] Ampere
  10. A high tide occurs_____. 
    [A] on every new moon day [B] on every full moon day [C] both A and B [D] everyday
  11. Who discovered the laws of planetary motion?
    [A] Plato [B] Newton [C] Galileo [D] Kepler
  12. The mass of earth is_____ times the mass of mercury. 
    [A] 10 [B] 14 [C] 18 [D] 22
  13. The tail of a comet is the longest when_____.
    [A] it is nearest to Sun [B] it is farthest from Sun 
[C] it is far from Earth [D] it is near Jupiter
  14. A rocket works on the principle of_____.
    [A] Newton's first law of motion [B] Newton's second law of motion 
[C] Newton's third law of motion [D] First law of thermodynamics
  15. During a chemical reaction, the concentration of reactants_____.
    [A] does not change [B] increases [C] decreases [D] never decreases
  16. The acid-base theory of Lewis is based on_____.
    [A] proton transfer      [B] litmus test 
[C] theory of ionisation [D] transfer of electron pair
  17. Preparation of vegetable ghee from vegetable oil is_____ reaction.
    [A] chlorination [B] sulphonation [C] hydrolysis [D] hydrogenation
  18. Which acid is present in the stomach of humans?
    [A] sulphuric acid [B] hydrochloric acid [C] nitric acid [D] citric acid
  19. Brine is_____.
    [A] Na2CO3 [B] NaHCO3 [C] NaCl [D] Na2SiO3
  20. Which substance is a salt of weak acid and strong base?
    [A] Slaked lime [B] Gypsum [C] Bleaching powder [D] Washindg soda
  21. Helmets are made from_____.
    [A] manganese steel [B] chromium steel [C] cobalt steel [D] silicon steel
  22. The melting point of lime is_____ °C
    [A] 1000 [B] 1200 [C] 1539 [D] 2000
  23. Liquefaction method is used for the purification of metals with_____.
    [A] high melting point [B] low melting point 
[C] high boiling point [D] low boiling point
  24. The true order of reactivity of metals is_____.
    [A] Mg>Al>Zn>Fe [B] Mg>Zn>Fe>Al [C] Al>Mg>Zn>Fe [D] Zn>Mg>Al>Fe
  25. The formula of rust is_____.
    [A] FeSO4 [B] Fe2O3.xH2O [C] Fe3O4.xH2O [D] FeCO3
  26. How many nonmetals are in solid state?
    [A] 11 [B] 12 [C] 13 [D] 14
  27. Sulphur belongs to_____ group in periodic table. 
    [A] Boron [B] Carbon [C] Oxygen [D] Halogen
  28. _____ is a neutral oxide.
    [A] CO2 [B] NO2 [C] CO [D] SO3
  29. The formula of butanol is_____.
    [A] CH3OH [B] C2H5OH [C] C3H7OH [D] C4H9OH
  30. Yeast contains_____.
    [A] invertase                 [B] zymase 
[C] both invertase and zymase [D] neither invertase nor zymase
  31. The boiling point of acetone is_____°C
    [A] 40 [B] 48 [C] 56 [D] 64
  32. Which of the following is a condensation polymer?
    [A] Nylon [B] PVC [C] Natural rubber [D] TEFLON
  33. The autotrophic organisms contain_____ pigment. 
    [A] methylene blue [B] chlorophyll [C] phenolphthalin [D] carbon black
  34. The energy released during cellular respiration is stored in_____.
    [A] ATP [B] glucose [C] lungs [D] ileum
  35. Which organism shows parasitic mode of nutrition?
    [A] Cascuta [B] Plasmodium [C] ascaris [D] all three
  36. Gaseous exchange occurs through _____ in earthworm.
    [A] lungs [B] skin [C] nephridia [D] mouth
  37. _____ is associated with transport of water in plants.
    [A] Xylem [B] Phloem [C] Chloroplast [D] Aerenchyma
  38. Urine mainly consists of_____.
    [A] uranium [B] urea [C] CO2 [D] sugar
  39. _____ is/are synthesized at the shoot and root tips of plants.
    [A]Glucose [B] Starch [C] Hormones [D] Minerals
  40. Plant hormones are called _____.
    [A] hypohormones [B] metahormones [C] phytohormones [D] cytohormones
  41. Nerve mass in invertebrates is called_____.
    [A] neuron [B] pelvis [C] brain [D] ganglion
  42. Which of the following shows thigmonastic response?
    [A] Sun flower [B] Insectivorous plant [C] Lotus [D] Bryophyllum
  43. The structural and functional unit of the nervous system in multicellular organisms is _____.
    [A] neuron [B] brain [C] spinal cord [D] pons
  44. Which of the following shows spore formation?
    [A] Amoeba [B] Mucor [C] Plasmodium [D] Paramoecium
  45. In a normal healthy woman, menstruation occurs every_____ days.
    [A] 14 [B] 28-32 [C] 21-24 [D] 270
  46. The chromatids are joined to each other by_____.
    [A] chromosome [B] centromere [C] gene [D] DNA
  47. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
    [A] Methane [B] Oxygen [C] Nitrogen [D] Hydrogen
  48. Compounds of _____ cause Minamata disease.
    [A] Mercury [B] Cadmium [C] Cobalt [D] Arsenic
  49. Which rays strike the earth due to depletion of ozone layer?
    [A] Infrared [B] Microwaves [C] Ultraviolet [D] Visible
  50. Oxygen Pond method has been developed by _____.
    [A] NACO [B] UNESCO [C] GROFED [D] NEERI

PART : B

There are 18 questions in all. Total Marks for Part-B are 50 and Time period is 2 hours.

SECTION : A [5 x 2 marks, Total marks: 10]

  1. Explain the use of nanotechnology in diagnostics.
  2. Distinguish between real image and virtual image (two points)
    OR

    Mention the characteristics of image formed by a plane mirror.
  3. Explain primary and composite colours giving examples.
  4. Mention characteristics of Jovian planets.
    OR

    Describe four uses of artificial satellites.
  5. Mention the criteria of chemical equilibrium.

    SECTION : B [5 x 2 marks, Total marks: 10]



  6. Write the formula of bleaching powder and mention its three uses.
  7. Write about harmful effects of ethyl alcohol.
    OR

    Write a note on vulcanisation of rubber.
  8. Describe aerobic respiration.
    OR

    Describe mechanism of breathing.
  9. Describe photoperiodism.
  10. Write a note on puberty.

    SECTION : C [5 x 3 marks, Total marks: 15]



  11. Describe mirage with diagram.
  12. Derive the formula for equivalent resistance when three resistances are connected in parallel.
    OR

    Three resistors of 5Ω, 10Ω and 30Ω are connected in parallel with a battery of 12 V. Find (i) the current passing through each resistor (ii) the total current of the circuit (iii) the equivalent resistance of the circuit.
  13. Describe the magnetic field due to a current-carrying coil with diagram.
  14. Describe preparation of hydrogen gas in laboratory with diagram.
  15. Describe tracheids with neat diagram.
    OR

    Write a note on blood clotting.

    SECTION : D [3 x 5 marks, Total marks: 15]



  16. Describe with diagram the process of preparation of charcoal from wood.
    OR

    Describe nuclear reactor with diagram.
  17. Describe Hall-Heroult process for obtaining aluminum from alumina.
  18. Write a note on Watson-Crick model for structure of DNA with diagram.
Posted by at 4 comments:

Sunday, August 29, 2010

PLEASE READ THIS FIRST...

Recently the pattern for 100 mark exam papers has been modified by the GSEB. Accordingly, we will have PART-A of 50 MCQs (50 marks) and PART-B of descriptive answers consisting of 2-mark, 3-mark & 5-mark questions (50 marks). I am preparing new question papers as per new pattern. As soon as I finish, I shall start posting new set of papers.
Posted by at 2 comments:

Friday, February 6, 2009

TEST PAPER 32 : CHAPTER 18 : ENVIRONMENT & ENVIRONMENTAL PROBLEMS : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. Which one is a greenhouse gas ?

    1. Methane
    2. Oxygen
    3. Nitrogen
    4. Hydrogen

  2. World Environment Day is observed on...

    1. 5th March
    2. 15th April
    3. 15th May
    4. 5th June

  3. ______ is not an environmental problem.

    1. Wastage of water
    2. Conservation of water
    3. Deforestation
    4. Land erosion


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. What is studied in environmental biology ?
  5. Mention the major reason for environmental problems.
  6. What is eutrophication ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. Mention types of environment with examples.
  8. Explain : Acid rain.
  9. Write about biodegradable pollutants.
  10. Explain : Environmental balance.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Describe harmful effects of water pollution.
  12. What is air pollution ? Describe methods of controlling gaseous pollutants.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Describe prevention and control of water pollution.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 31 : CHAPTER 17 : HEREDITY & EVOLUTION : 25 MARKS

There are 15 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]


  1. Which of the following is not a nitrogenous base ?

    1. Adenine
    2. Guanine
    3. Cytosine
    4. Deoxyribose sugar

  2. ______ gave Germplasm theory.

    1. Lamarck
    2. Weismann
    3. Darwin
    4. Hugo De Vries

  3. Fossils of _____ provide evidence of evolution as the connecting link between birds and reptiles.

    1. Dinosaurs
    2. Lizard
    3. Archeopteryx
    4. Ostrich

  4. Which principle was given by Darwin ?

    1. Inheritance of acquired characters
    2. Germplasm theory
    3. Mutation theory
    4. Theory of natural selection


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]

  5. Give biological meaning of variation.
  6. What are homologous chromosomes ?
  7. What is the biological name of fruit fly ?
  8. What is a retrovirus ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  9. Explain : Heredity.
  10. Explain : Mutation.
  11. Describe the role of environment in sex determination.
  12. Write in brief about components of nucleotides.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 9]

  13. Mention types of chromosome and describe any two.
  14. Mention different evidences to support evolution and describe comparative embryology.
  15. Describe the Watson-Crick model for the structure of DNA(diagram not essential).
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 30 : CHAPTER 16 : REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. Yeast reproduces by ______.

    1. budding
    2. fission
    3. regeneration
    4. spore formation

  2. The 14th day of sexual cycle in human female is important because on that day...

    1. ovulation occurs
    2. she becomes pregnant
    3. menstrual flow starts
    4. she gives birth to a child

  3. Embryo is protected during development by...

    1. placenta
    2. umbilical cord
    3. amnion
    4. oviduct


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. Give two examples of organisms reproducing by fission.
  5. What is fragmentation ?
  6. What is gestation ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. What is reproduction ? Mention its importance.
  8. Mention accessory reproductive glands and their function in human male.
  9. Mention symptoms of STDs.
  10. Describe budding in hydra.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Describe reproduction by spore formation.
  12. Describe methods of birth control.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Describe sexual cycle in human female.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 29 : CHAPTER 15 : CONTROL & COORDINATION IN LIVING ORGANISMS : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. The sunflower plant bends towards the sun. It is _____ response.

    1. thigmonastic
    2. seismonastic
    3. thermonastic
    4. photonastic

  2. The space between meninges is filled with...

    1. lymph
    2. blood plasma
    3. cerebrospinal fluid
    4. ACTH

  3. Which organ is not controlled by autonomous nervous system ?

    1. Heart
    2. Uterus
    3. Glands
    4. Eyes


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. What is stimulus ?
  5. What does nervous system of insects consist of ?
  6. What is the function of cerebellum ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. What is tropism ? Mention its types.
  8. Describe photoperiodism.
  9. Mention characteristics of hormones.
  10. Mention four endocrine glands. Why is pituitary gland called master gland ?


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Describe : Nastic movement.
  12. Write a note on autonomous nervous system.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Describe : Spinal cord and reflex action.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 28 : CHAPTER 14 : TRANSPORTATION, CIRCULATION & EXCRETION IN ORGANISMS : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. Which one is not a property of blood plasma ?

    1. It is pale yellow.
    2. It is nonliving.
    3. It is acidic.
    4. It carries hormones.

  2. Which of the following is true ?

    1. Heart purifies blood.
    2. Heart separates excretory wastes from blood.
    3. Heart circulates blood.
    4. Heart supplies oxygen to blood.

  3. Where are antigens located ?

    1. On WBC
    2. On RBC
    3. On platelets
    4. In blood plasma


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. Where are plant hormones synthesised ?
  5. Define : Blood transfusion.
  6. Why is the circulation of blood through heart called 'double circulation'?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. Write a note on tracheids.
  8. Write a note on blood platelets.
  9. Draw a neat diagram of human excretory system.
  10. Describe the process of formation of urine.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Describe clotting of blood.
  12. Write a note on lymphatic system.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Describe excretion and osmoregulation.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 27 : CHAPTER 13 : NUTRITION & RESPIRATION IN ORGANISMS : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. The layer of dead cells having tiny openings on the roots is called...

    1. root nodule
    2. stomata
    3. chlorenchyma
    4. lenticels

  2. Cockroach shows _____ mode of nutrition.

    1. herbivorous
    2. carnivorous
    3. omnivorous
    4. parasitic

  3. The function of incisors is ______.

    1. cutting
    2. tearing
    3. grinding
    4. chewing


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. What are autotrophic organisms ?
  5. How does the rate of photosynthesis depend upon the intensity of light ?
  6. Through what does the frog respire ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. Eaplain : Saprophytic nutrition.
  8. Describe exchange of gases in tissues.
  9. Describe aerobic respiration.
  10. Describe respiration in insects.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Describe the light phase of photosynthesis.
  12. Describe nutrition in amoeba with diagram.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Describe human respiratory system.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 26 : CHAPTER 12 : ORGANIC COMPOUNDS : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. Oxidation of ethanol in presence of alkaline potassium permanganate gives...

    1. acetaldehyde
    2. ethane
    3. potassium ethoxide
    4. acetic acid

  2. The enzyme which converts milk into curd is...

    1. lactase
    2. invertase
    3. zymase
    4. cellulase

  3. Vinegar is...

    1. methanol
    2. ethanal
    3. methanoic acid
    4. ethanoic acid


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. Mention the boiling point of ethanol.
  5. Write the equation for the combustion of ethanol.
  6. What is formalin ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. Explain : Functional group.
  8. What is a polymer ? Give its classification.
  9. Distinguish between soap and detergent(2 points).
  10. Describe preparation of formaldehyde and write its reaction with hydrogen cyanide.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Describe preparation of ethanol from sugar(molasses).
  12. Describe preparation of polyester and write its uses.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Describe preparation of acetic acid by fermentation and by chemical synthesis. Write its physical properties and its reaction with ethanol in presence of concentrated sulphuric acid.
Posted by at No comments:

Wednesday, February 4, 2009

TEST PAPER 25 : CHAPTER 11 : NONMETALS : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. The formula of carbonic acid is ______.

    1. H2CO3
    2. H3CO2
    3. HCO3
    4. H2CO2

  2. How many nonmetals are in gaseous state ?

    1. 7
    2. 8
    3. 9
    4. 10

  3. The transition temperature of sulphur is ___ °C.

    1. 90
    2. 92
    3. 94
    4. 96


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. Give the example of a nonmetal which conducts heat & electricity.
  5. Why is ammonia not collected by downward displacement of water ?
  6. Which crystalline form of sulphur is the most stable ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. Write chemical equations : (i) When phosphorus pentoxide is dissolved in water.(ii) When ammonia reacts with oxygen in presence of platinum.
  8. Mention four uses of ammonia.
  9. Mention four physical properties of sulphur.
  10. Describe preparation of sulphur from natural gas and oils.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Describe allotropes of sulphur(diagrams not necessary).
  12. Describe manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Describe laboratory preparation of hydrogen with diagram.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 24 : CHAPTER 10 : METALS : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. Liquefaction method is used for the purification of metals with ______.

    1. high melting point
    2. low melting point
    3. high boiling point
    4. low boiling point

  2. Pure gold is ______ carats.

    1. 20
    2. 22
    3. 24
    4. 100

  3. The melting point of iron is ______ °C.

    1. 1539
    2. 1639
    3. 1739
    4. 1839


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. Define : Ore.
  5. What do we mean by metallurgy ?
  6. What is rust chemically ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. Write a note on magnetic separation.
  8. Explain calcination with example.
  9. Explain the importance of ultrapure metals.
  10. What is an alloy ? Give two examples.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Describe Bayer's process to obtain pure alumina from bauxite.
  12. Describe reactions of metals with water giving proper chemical equations.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Mention two ores of iron and write their formulae. Describe the manufacture of iron using blast furnace(diagram not essential).
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 23 : CHAPTER 9 : SOME IMPORTANT CHEMICAL COMPOUNDS : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. Steel is an alloy of ______.

    1. iron and silica
    2. iron and nickel
    3. iron and chromium
    4. iron and carbon

  2. The formula of baking soda is ______.

    1. NaHCO3
    2. Na2CO3.10H2O
    3. Na2CO3
    4. Na2SiO3

  3. ______ is used for making permanent magnets.

    1. Manganese steel
    2. Chromium steel
    3. Cobalt steel
    4. Silicon steel


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. What is the chemical name of washing soda ?
  5. How much carbon does steel contain ?
  6. What is the full form of RCC ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. Describe how bleaching powder is manufactured.
  8. Mention four uses of lime.
  9. Mention the composition of stainless steel and one important property.
  10. Write a few points on coloured glass.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Describe ammonia soda process to manufacture washing soda.
  12. Describe manufacture of glass.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Write a note on Plaster of Paris explaining its preparation, properties and uses.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 22 : CHAPTER 8 : RATE OF CHEMICAL REACTION-CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. During a chemical reaction, the concentration of reactants...

    1. does not change
    2. increases
    3. decreases
    4. may increase

  2. ______ defined pH in 1909.

    1. Arrhenius
    2. Sorensen
    3. Lewis
    4. Haber

  3. Preparation of vegetable ghee from vegetable oil is ______ reaction.

    1. chlorination
    2. sulphonation
    3. hydrogenation
    4. hydrolysis


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. Why are the definitions of acid and base by Robert Boyle called 'operational' type ?
  5. Define : Molarity.
  6. State the Law of Mass Action.


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. Define rate of reaction and state its unit.
  8. Describe Arrhenius' concept of acid and base.
  9. What is a reversible reaction ? Give an example.
  10. Mention the factors affecting the rate of a chemical reaction.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Explain chemical equilibrium with an nexample.
  12. Derive the expression for the equilibrium constant for the reaction A + B ----> C + D.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Explain : Dynamic nature of chemical equilibrium.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 21 : CHAPTER 7 : UNIVERSE : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. Sun rises in the west on ______.

    1. Mercury
    2. Mars
    3. Pluto
    4. Venus

  2. 1 light year = ______ km.

    1. 9.46 x 1011
    2. 9.46 x 1012
    3. 4.96 x 1011
    4. 4.96 x 1012

  3. The minimun velocity required for a satellite to remain in the orbit is ______.

    1. 8 km/s
    2. 8 km/h
    3. 800 km/h
    4. 800 m/s


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. What is 'photosphere' ?
  5. Name two planets which do not have natural satellites.
  6. What is the speed of revolution of Sun ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. Define solar system and write the names of the planets in the ascending order of their distance from sun.
  8. Write four points about saturn.
  9. Mention two major disasters of space shuttles.
  10. Mention uses of artificial satellites in communication.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Explain how the space shuttle is brought back from space.
  12. Write six major points about asteroids.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Write a detailed note on comets.
Posted by at No comments:

Sunday, February 1, 2009

TEST PAPER 20 : CHAPTER 6 : ENERGY SOURCES : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. How much solar energy reaches earth's surface ?

    1. 3.8 x 1024 J/s
    2. 3.8 x 1026 J/s
    3. 1.7 x 1017 J/s
    4. 1.7 x 1026 J/s

  2. The number of carbon atoms in hydrocarbon molecule of kerosene is...

    1. 5 - 8
    2. 8 - 11
    3. 10 - 14
    4. 12 - 16

  3. The calorific value of biogas is ______ kJ/g.

    1. 30 - 35
    2. 35 - 40
    3. 40 - 45
    4. 45 - 50


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. what is the full form of LPG ?
  5. What is the benefit of Ocean Thermal Energy ?
  6. What is the boiling range of diesel ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. How are smokeless chulhas more efficient than the traditional chulhas ?
  8. Give reason : The calorific value of wood is lower than that of the hydrocarbons.
  9. Explain how the energy obtained from fusion is better than that obtained from fission reactions ?
  10. Mention limitations of windmills.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Explain construction and working of solar cells.
  12. Describe an experiment to find the calorific value of wax.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. What is chain reaction ? Describe ideal conditions to support a nuclear chain reaction.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 19 : CHAPTER 5 : MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. Who was the first scientist to observe the magnetic effect of electric current ?

    1. Faraday
    2. Ampere
    3. Oersted
    4. Volta

  2. The direction of magnetic field lines is taken...

    1. north pole to south pole
    2. south pole to north pole
    3. entering both poles
    4. leaving both poles

  3. The insulation cover on live wire is...

    1. red
    2. black
    3. green
    4. white


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. What is induced current ?
  5. What do we mean by frequency of current ?
  6. Which metal is generally used to make a fuse wire ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. Explain : Right-hand thumb rule with diagram.
  8. Mention two advantages of alternating current.
  9. Domestic appliances are joined in parallel. Why ?
  10. Explain : Electromagnetic induction.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Write a note on solenoid.
  12. Draw a schematic diagram of domestic wiring.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Describe electric motor with diagram.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 18 : CHAPTER 4 : ELECTRICITY : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. When resistors are connected in series...

    1. voltage drop is uniform
    2. current is uniform
    3. both voltage and current are uniform
    4. neither of the two is uniform

  2. 1 A = ______ mA.

    1. 100
    2. 1000
    3. 10(-3)
    4. 106

  3. Equivalent resistance of resistances in parallel is...

    1. smaller than the smallest resistance
    2. greater than the greatest resistance
    3. an average of all resistances
    4. algebraic sum of all resistances


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]

  4. What type of charge does a glass rod acquire when it is rubbed with silk cloth ?
  5. Define : Electroplating.
  6. Current flows in a wire. Can we call the wire charged ? Why ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 6]

  7. Mention two disadvantages of series connection.
  8. Explain the cause of resistance in a conductor. What are conductors and insulators ?
  9. Define electric power and write different equations of power.
  10. A lamp of resistance 20 ohm is joined to a battery of 12 V. Find the value of the resistance to be connected in series with the lamp in order to get current of 0.5 A.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Define electric current and explain the difference of electron current and conventional current.
  12. What is series connection? Derive the formula of equivalent resistance for three resistors connected in series.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Describe Ohm's experiment and write its conclusion.
Posted by at No comments:

Wednesday, January 28, 2009

TEST PAPER 17 : CHAPTER 3 : DISPERSION OF LIGHT & OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. Arranging in the ascending order of wavelength, which one is true ?

    1. Blue, Green, Red
    2. Orange, Green, Red
    3. Blue, Yellow, Green
    4. Orange, Yellow, Green

  2. Green + magenta = ______.

    1. Cyan
    2. Yellow
    3. Red
    4. White

  3. In spectrum obtained with prism, which colour is deviated maximum ?

    1. Violet
    2. Green
    3. Orange
    4. Red


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. Define : Dispersion of light.
  5. Why does a green leaf appear green ?
  6. Mention the principle of simple microscope.


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. Why does dispersion of light occur ? Explain.
  8. Explain : Primary and composite colours.
  9. Why do defects of vision arise ?
  10. Explain : Complementary colours.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Explain : Farsightedness with diagram.
  12. Draw the ray diagram to show the working of a compound microscope(diagram only).


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Explain subtractive method of mixing of pigments.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 16 : CHAPTER 2 : LIGHT-REFLECTION AND REFRACTION : 25 MARKS

There are 13 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]


  1. The speed of light is ______ in vacuum.

    1. 3 x 105 m/s
    2. 3 x 108 m/s
    3. 3 x 108 km/s
    4. 3 x 106 km/s

  2. We can see objects because of ______.

    1. reflection
    2. refraction
    3. transmission
    4. dispersion

  3. Which of the following is a true statement?

    1. The power of a lens is always positive.
    2. The power of a lens is always negative.
    3. The power of a convex lens is positive.
    4. The power of a concave lens is positive.


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 3]

  4. Define : Radius of curvature of a mirror.
  5. Mention the position, nature and the size of the image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at 2F1.
  6. What will be the power of a convex lens of focal length 40 cm ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  7. Describe irregular reflection.
  8. Draw the ray diagram to show the position, nature and the size of the image when an object is placed between C and F of a concave mirror.
  9. State the laws of refraction.
  10. An object of height 6 cm is placed at distance of 10 cm from a convex mirror with radius of curvature 30 cm. Find the position, nature and the height of its image.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]

  11. Explain the nature of light.
  12. Explain : Reflection from plane mirror. OR    Explain : Mirage with diagram.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]

  13. Derive Lens formula.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 15 : CHAPTER 1 : INTRODUCTION TO NANOTECHNOLOGY : 25 MARKS

There are 15 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]


  1. 1 meter = ______ nm.

    1. 109
    2. 10(-9)
    3. 1010
    4. 10(-10)

  2. The diameter of hydrogen atom is ______ nm.

    1. 10
    2. 1
    3. 0.1
    4. 0.01

  3. ______ are the extensions of bucky balls.

    1. Geodesic domes
    2. Hexagons
    3. Carbon nanotubes
    4. AFM and STM

  4. The size of a quantum dot is ______ m.

    1. 5
    2. 5 x 10(-9)
    3. 5 x 10(-10)
    4. 5 x 10(-11)


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]

  5. What is atomic engineering ?
  6. What is the full form of MEMS ?
  7. Who photographed nanotubes for the first time ?
  8. What is the use of nanocrystals ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 8]

  9. What possibilities will nanotechnology offer ?
  10. Why is carbon a fundamental element in nanotechnology ?
  11. Explain the influence of nanotechnology on environment.
  12. Explain : Nanotechnology plays by different rules.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 9]

  13. Write a note on nanotechnology and health care.
  14. Explain the concept of nanotubes with diagram.
  15. Mention any six benefits of nanotechnology to mankind.
Posted by at No comments:

Wednesday, November 5, 2008

TEST PAPER 14 : ALL CHAPTERS : 100 MARKS

There are 54 questions in all and time limit is 3 hours.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark
each, Total marks 15]


  1. The cut-off limit of human eye to see is ______.

    1. 1 nm
    2. 100 nm
    3. 1000 nm
    4. 10000 nm

  2. Magnification for convex mirror is ______.

    1. always positive
    2. always negative
    3. 0
    4. 1

  3. Who had patented more than 1000 inventions during his life time ?

    1. Edison
    2. Volta
    3. Ampere
    4. Faraday

  4. ______ was the first person to notice the magnetic effect of electric current.

    1. Faraday
    2. Ampere
    3. Oersted
    4. Maxwell

  5. Bombardment of neutron on 6Li3 gives ______.

    1. 1H0
    2. 1H1
    3. 2H1
    4. 3H1

  6. The sun stays in one nakshatra for about ______.

    1. 30 days
    2. 13.5 days
    3. 7 days
    4. 1 day

  7. Conversion of milk into curd is ______.

    1. a physical change
    2. a chemical change
    3. not a chemical change
    4. neither a physical nor a chemical change

  8. Helmets are made from ______.

    1. manganese steel
    2. chrome steel
    3. cobalt steel
    4. silicon steel

  9. An organic acid + an alcohol --> ______.

    1. an aldehyde
    2. a ketone
    3. an ester
    4. an amide

  10. Which of the following is the monomer of natural rubber ?

    1. Isoprene
    2. Chloroprene
    3. Neoprene
    4. TEFLON

  11. Liquefaction method is used for the purification of metals with ______.

    1. high melting point
    2. high boiling point
    3. low melting point
    4. low boiling point

  12. Urine mainly consists of ______.

    1. uranium
    2. urea
    3. CO2
    4. sugar

  13. Plant hormones are called ______.

    1. hypohormones
    2. metahormones
    3. phytohormones
    4. cytohormones

  14. Mutation theory was given by ______.

    1. Lamarck
    2. Darwin
    3. Hugo De Vries
    4. Mendel

  15. World Environment Day is celebrated every year on ______.

    1. 5th March
    2. 15th April
    3. 15th May
    4. 5th June


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total
    marks 15]

  16. What is a simple microscope ?
  17. Define : 1-ohm resistance.
  18. What type of magnetic field arises when current passes through a linear wire ?
  19. Where are hot water geysers found in Gujarat ?
  20. What did Ptolemy believe about the Universe ?
  21. Which is the gas mainly present in the atmosphere of Pluto ?
  22. Define : pH.
  23. Write the formula of acetone cyanohydrin.
  24. What is the full form of PABA ?
  25. Where does the biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis take place ?
  26. Mention the types of nephridia in earth worm.
  27. Define : Reproduction.
  28. Where are genes located ?
  29. What does environment mean ?
  30. What is meant by biodegradable pollutants ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total
    marks 24]

  31. Write a brief note on bucky ball.
  32. Distinguish between compound microscope and astronomical telescope[2 points]
  33. A lamp of resistance 20Ω is joined to a battery of 12 V. Find the value of the resistance to be connected in series with the lamp in order to get current of 0.5 A.  OR  Explain the importance of earthing wire.
  34. Explain : The energy obtained from nuclear fusion is better than that obtained from fission reactions.
  35. Calculate the pH of 0.03 M aqueous solution of NaOH.(Take log10 3 = 0.4771). OR  Mention the criteria of chemical equilibrium.
  36. Write a note on saponification.
  37. Mention four uses of hydrogen.
  38. Describe exchange of gases in tissues.
  39. Write four points about erythrocytes.
  40. Explain the importance of ultrapure metals.
  41. Mention the characteristics of hormones.
  42. Explain : Homologous organs  OR  Draw a chart showing types of environment.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each,
    Total marks 21]

  43. Describe Ohm's experiment.  OR  Derive an expression for equivalent resistance(R) when three resistors of R1, R2 and R3 Ω are connected in parallel.
  44. Explain : Solenoid.
  45. Describe preparation of Plaster of Paris, write its two properties and two uses.  OR  Describe preparation of acetic acid by fermentation as well as by chemical method.
  46. Describe refining of metals by electrochemical method.
  47. Mention organs of human respiratory system and describe mechanism of breathing.
  48. Draw a neat diagram of brain and write about hind brain.
  49. Explain : Grafting with diagram.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total
    marks 25]

  50. Explain : Total internal reflection and mirage with diagram.
  51. Describe nuclear reactor with diagram.  OR  Write a note on construction and working of a space shuttle with simple diagram.
  52. With the help of an experiment explain the concept of dynamic nature of chemical equilibrium.
  53. Write a detailed note on ammonia, its manufacture and mention its properties and uses.
  54. Describe the structure of chromosome with diagram.  OR  Describe Watson-Crick model for the structure of DNA.
Posted by at No comments:

Saturday, November 1, 2008

TEST PAPER 13 : ALL CHAPTERS : 100 MARKS

There are 54 questions in all and time limit is 3 hours.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark
each, Total marks 15]


  1. A bucky ball is a molecule consisting of ______ carbon atoms.

    1. 50
    2. 60
    3. 70
    4. 100

  2. In the spectrum of white light obtained with prism, ______ colour is deviated maximum.

    1. violet
    2. red
    3. green
    4. orange

  3. Which of the following is not correct ?

    1. P = W/t
    2. P = I2R
    3. P = WI
    4. P = VI

  4. The insulation cover on the earth wire is ______ in colour.

    1. red
    2. black
    3. green
    4. white

  5. 1 eV = ______ joule.

    1. 1.6 x 10(-17)
    2. 1.6 x 10(-18)
    3. 1.6 x 10(-19)
    4. 1.6 x 10(-20)

  6. The stars appearing ______ have very high/highest temperature.

    1. red
    2. blue
    3. white
    4. yellow

  7. The acid-base theory by Bronsted and Lowry...

    1. is based on donation of electron.
    2. does not give importance to the solvent.
    3. gives importance to the solvent.
    4. gives operational definition of acid and base.

  8. The formula of soda ash is ______.

    1. NaHCO3
    2. Na2CO3
    3. Na2CO3.10H2O
    4. NaOH

  9. What is the boiling point of acetic acid ?

    1. 98 °C
    2. 108 °C
    3. 118 °C
    4. 128 °C

  10. ______ is the formula of cuprite.

    1. Cu2O
    2. Cu2S
    3. CuCO3
    4. CuCl2

  11. ______ is a neutral oxide.

    1. Na2O
    2. CO2
    3. CO
    4. SO3

  12. The lungs are covered by two membranes called ______.

    1. glottis
    2. epiglottis
    3. pleura
    4. sphincter

  13. ______ pairs of spinal nerves arise from spinal cord.

    1. 21
    2. 31
    3. 23
    4. 46

  14. The method by which the desired characters of two plants can be combined is...

    1. cutting
    2. layering
    3. budding
    4. grafting

  15. The principle of inheritance of acquired characters was given by...

    1. Lamarck
    2. Weismann
    3. Darwin
    4. Hugo De Vries


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total
    marks 15]

  16. Who photographed nanotubes for the first time ?
  17. State Snell's law.
  18. What is overloading ?
  19. What is magma ?
  20. Mention the calorific values of charcoal and wood ?
  21. What is corona ?
  22. State the pH of the solution whose pOH is 3.925.
  23. Why is NaCl added to the Plaster of Paris ?
  24. Write the chemical formulas of butanal and propanone.
  25. What is gangue ?
  26. Why is sulphuric acid known as the King of chemicals ?
  27. What is the function of phloem ?
  28. What is 'scion' ?
  29. Mention the limitation of Darwinism.
  30. What is conservation of environment ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total
    marks 24]

  31. Explain primary and composite colours giving examples.  OR  Explain why defects of vision arise.
  32. What is electrolysis ? Write Faraday's laws of electrolysis.
  33. Mention two advantages of alternating current.
  34. How are smokeless chulhas more efficient than traditional chulhas ?  OR  Mention names of terrestrial planets and their characteristics.
  35. Write a note on safety glass.
  36. What are condensation polymers ? Give examples.
  37. Explain with example : Reaction of nonmetals with chlorine.
  38. Describe biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis with diagram.  OR  Explain : Rhesus factor.
  39. Describe endocrine glands in short.
  40. What individual care should one take to prevent sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) ?
  41. Explain : Variation.
  42. Describe sewage treatment.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each,
    Total marks 21]

  43. Describe tensile strength and thermal conductivity as properties of nanotubes.
  44. Explain Cartesian sign convention for spherical mirrors with the help of a diagram.
  45. Explain the re-use of byproducts obtained during Solvay's ammonia soda process.  OR  Describe three chemical properties of ethyl alcohol(ethanol).
  46. Write a note on allotropes of sulphur.
  47. Describe nutrition in amoeba with diagram.
  48. Explain : Tropism  OR  Describe regeneration as a method of reproduction.
  49. Mention harmful effects of water pollution.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total
    marks 25]

  50. Describe construction and working of a simple voltaic cell.
  51. Explain Solar water heater with a neat diagram.  OR  Describe various orbits of artificial satellites giving appropriate details.
  52. Derive the expression for the equilibrium constant for the reaction :   A + B --> C + D .
  53. Describe extraction of aluminium from bauxite using Bayer's process and Hall-Heroult process.  OR  Explain how metals react with oxygen, water and dilute acids giving proper examples.
  54. Describe excretion in earthworm.
Posted by at No comments:

Tuesday, October 21, 2008

TEST PAPER 12 : ALL CHAPTERS : 100 MARKS

There are 54 questions in all and time limit is 3 hours.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark
each, Total marks 15]


  1. The diameter of a bucky ball is about ______.

    1. 1 A°
    2. 10 A°
    3. 100 A°
    4. 1000 A°

  2. Absolute refractive index of any medium is always ______.

    1. 1
    2. greater than 1
    3. smaller than 1
    4. 0

  3. The unit of electric current is ______.

    1. coulomb-second
    2. coulomb/second
    3. volt/second
    4. coulomb/volt

  4. The direction of magnetic field lines is taken ______.

    1. N to S
    2. S to N
    3. entering both poles
    4. leaving both poles

  5. ______ is the superior quality of coal.

    1. Peat
    2. Lignite
    3. Bituminous
    4. Anthracite

  6. How many satellites does mercury have ?

    1. 30
    2. 21
    3. 8
    4. 0

  7. The concentration of H+ ions in neutral water is ______.

    1. 1 x 10-7 mol/lit
    2. -7.0 mol/lit
    3. 7.0 mol/lit
    4. (1/7) mol/lit

  8. Brine is ______.

    1. Na2CO3
    2. NaHCO3
    3. NaCl
    4. Na2SiO3

  9. The enzyme that converts milk to curd is ______.

    1. lactase
    2. invertase
    3. zymase
    4. cellulase

  10. Brass is an alloy of ______.

    1. copper and nickel
    2. copper and zinc
    3. copper and tin
    4. copper and iron

  11. The atomic number of sulphur is ______.

    1. 15
    2. 16
    3. 17
    4. 18

  12. ______ shows phagocytosis.

    1. Amoeba
    2. Locust
    3. Earthworm
    4. Cockroach

  13. Which multicellular organism lacks the nervous system ?

    1. Hydra
    2. Locust
    3. Sponge
    4. Cockroach

  14. Disease caused by Treponema Palidium is _______.

    1. AIDS
    2. Syphilis
    3. Gonorrhoea
    4. Typhoid

  15. Minamata disease is caused by the pollution of

    1. Mercury
    2. Lead
    3. Arsenic
    4. Cadmium


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total
    marks 15]

  16. What are complimentary colours ?
  17. How many electrons should flow in one second to contribute electric current of 1 ampere ?
  18. What type of magnetic field arises when current passes through a linear wire ?
  19. Define : Solar constant.
  20. Why does the candle get extinguished when air is blown ?
  21. How many meters make 1 light year ?
  22. What is 1 molar(1 M) solution ?
  23. Write the chemical name of plaster of Paris.
  24. What is the monomer of natural rubber ?
  25. What is e.m.f. series (of metals) ?
  26. Give two examples of neutral oxides.
  27. What is the life span of human erythrocytes ?
  28. What is reflex arc ?
  29. What are homologous chromosomes ?
  30. What is Greenhouse effect ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total
    marks 24]

  31. Mention the use of nanotechnology for resources like energy and water.
  32. Explain why dispersion of light occurs.
  33. Three resistors of 5 Ω, 10 Ω and 15 Ω are connected in parallel.If the voltage is 3 V, find the overall current flowing through the circuit.  OR  Explain the right hand thumb rule for straight conductor.
  34. Write a note on Jupiter.
  35. Describe Arrhenius' concept of acid and base.
  36. Write addition reactions(one each) of formaldehyde and propanone.  OR  Write a brief note on soap.
  37. Explain calcination giving examples of two reactions.
  38. Explain : Exchange of gases in leaves.  OR  Describe excretion and osmoregulation in amoeba.
  39. Mention characteristics of hormones.
  40. Write a note on puberty.
  41. Explain homologous organs with example.
  42. Describe Oxidation pond method.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each,
    Total marks 21]

  43. Describe chemical effect of electric current giving example.  OR  Derive the expression for equivalent resistance(R) of three resistors connected in series.
  44. Explain : Solenoid.
  45. Describe the manufacture of bleaching powder. Write its reaction with dilute sulphuric acid and mention two uses.
  46. Describe froth floatation process with diagram.  OR  Describe Bayer's process for the concentration of bauxite ore.
  47. Describe light phase of photosynthesis.  OR  Describe digestive system of grasshopper with diagram.
  48. Describe the role of sex hormones in humans.
  49. Describe Mendel's concept of heredity.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total
    marks 25]

  50. Derive lens formula.
  51. Describe fractional distillation of petroleum with neat diagram and mention the products obtained.  OR  Describe construction and working of a space shuttle(diagram not necessary).
  52. Explain physical equilibrium with example.
  53. Describe laboratory preparation of hydrogen with diagram.
  54. Describe transportation of mineral elements in plants with diagram.  OR  Draw a neat diagram of heart and explain its working.
Posted by at No comments:

Saturday, October 11, 2008

TEST PAPER 11 - UNITS 6,7,8 - 50 MARKS

There are 26 questions in all and time limit is 90 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 7]


  1. In insects the air enters the tracheal system through ______.

    1. spiracles
    2. nostrils
    3. lungs
    4. bronchi

  2. The function of incisors is ______.

    1. cutting
    2. tearing
    3. grinding
    4. chewing

  3. There are ______ types of antigens on erythrocytes.

    1. five
    2. four
    3. three
    4. two

  4. A sunflower plant bends towards the sun; it is ______ response.

    1. thigmonastic
    2. seismonastic
    3. thermonastic
    4. photonastic

  5. ______ is useful where seeds have long dormancy period and poor germination capacity.

    1. Cutting
    2. Layering
    3. Grafting
    4. Regeneration

  6. ______ is an example of retrovirus.

    1. Virus causing AIDS
    2. TMV
    3. Bacteriophage
    4. RIV

  7. Eutrophication increases due to increase in ______.

    1. BOD
    2. industrialisation
    3. DOB
    4. soil erosion


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 7]

  8. Through what does a frog respire ?
  9. What is lymph ?
  10. Which plant hormones retard growth ?
  11. What is menopause ?
  12. What is the difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic chromosomes ?
  13. What is meant by organic evolution ?
  14. What is the full form of NEERI ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 12]

  15. Describe the effect of water and carbon dioxide on the process of photosynthesis.
  16. Write a note on blood platelets.
  17. Explain : Photoperiodism  OR   Mention the names of four endocrine glands in humans.
  18. Distinguish between asexual and sexual reproduction(two points).
  19. Explain : Variation.
  20. Mention two effects of land pollution.  OR   Draw a chart showing types of environment.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 9]

  21. Describe exchange of gases in roots and stems with diagram.  OR   Describe digestive system of grass-hopper with diagram.
  22. Write a note on tropism.
  23. Mention any six laws for environmental protection in India.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 15]

  24. Describe excretion in eatrhworm.  OR   Describe the structure of nephron with diagram.
  25. Describe sexual cycle in human female.
  26. Write a note on types of chromosomes with diagram.


Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 10 - UNITS 4,5 - 50 MARKS

There are 26 questions in all and time limit is 90 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 7]


  1. In pH scale, the base of the logarithm of molar concentration of H3O+ ion is ______.

    1. 10
    2. 20
    3. 50
    4. 100

  2. What is used as an antacid ?

    1. Na2CO3
    2. NaHCO3
    3. NaCl
    4. NaOH

  3. ______ is an ore of calcium.

    1. Magnetite
    2. Siderite
    3. Malachite
    4. Gypsum

  4. ______ is a poor conducting metal for heat.

    1. Copper
    2. Silver
    3. Aluminium
    4. Lead

  5. There are ______ nonmetallic elements.

    1. 20
    2. 22
    3. 24
    4. 25

  6. ______ have fruity smell.

    1. Alcohols
    2. Organic acids
    3. Esters
    4. Ketones

  7. Which of the following is artificial rubber ?

    1. Isoprene
    2. Chloroprene
    3. Neoprene
    4. TEFLON


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 7]

  8. What is used as catalyst in the preparation of vegetable ghee ?
  9. Give two examples of irreversible reaction.
  10. What is the full form of RCC ?
  11. Write the chemical equation for the preparation of quick lime.
  12. Why are metals like sodium, pottasium and aluminium not available in free state in nature ?
  13. Why is ammonia not collected by downward displacement of water ?
  14. Write the chemical equation for the combustion of ethanol.


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 12]

  15. Mention the criteria for chemical equilibrium.
  16. Describe the preparation of bleaching powder giving chemical reaction.  OR   Mention four uses of washing soda.
  17. Give chemical equations : (i) when iron reacts with steam (ii) when magnesium reacts with hot boiling water.  OR   Write the chemical equations involved in Bayer's process.
  18. Describe Frasch process to obtain sulphur(no diagram).
  19. Describe : Vulcanisation of rubber.
  20. Describe harmful effects of ethanol.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 9]

  21. Write the chemical formula of ordinary glass and describe its manufacture.
  22. Write three chemical properties of sulphur dioxide.
  23. Describe preparation of methanal from methanol, mention two properties and two uses of methanal.  OR   Write an introductory note on carbonyl compounds.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 15]

  24. Explain the concept of dynamic nature of chemical equilibrium giving example.
  25. What is concentration of ore ? Describe the process used to concentrate a sulphide ore.  OR   Describe refining of metals by elecrolysis giving example.
  26. Describe preparation of hydrogen in laboratory with neat diagram.
Posted by at No comments:

Friday, October 10, 2008

TEST PAPER 9 - UNITS 1,2,3 - 50 MARKS

There are 27 questions in all and time limit is 90 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark
each, Total marks 7]


  1. "There is plenty of room at the bottom." This was stated by...

    1. Issac Newton
    2. Albert Einstein
    3. Richard Feynman
    4. Eric Drexler

  2. The mirror formula is ______.

    1. (1/u)-(1/v) = (1/f)
    2. (1/f)+(1/u) = (1/v)
    3. f = uv/(u+v)
    4. f = (u+v)/uv

  3. In a transparent medium, the velocity of ______ light is the least.

    1. red
    2. green
    3. yellow
    4. violet

  4. 1 unit of domestic electric energy is equal to...

    1. 1 joule
    2. 1 watt-second
    3. 3.6 x 106 j
    4. 3.6 x 106 kwh

  5. The current passing through two separate lines(circuits) of our houses is ______ A and ______ A.

    1. 5,10
    2. 5,15
    3. 10,15
    4. 2,5

  6. During the refining of petroleum, the fraction having highest boiling temperature...

    1. condenses first
    2. condenses last
    3. does not condense
    4. remains in gaseous form

  7. ______ is the largest planet of our solar system.

    1. Earth
    2. Jupiter
    3. Saturn
    4. Neptune


    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total
    marks 8]

  8. What is a bucky tube ?
  9. What is an image ?
  10. Current flows in a wire. Can we call the wire charged ? Why ?
  11. Define : Induced electric current.
  12. Define : Solar constant.
  13. What is the full form of KVIC ?
  14. What are meteors ?
  15. What is the basic concept(belief) of Steady-state theory ?


    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total
    marks 10]

  16. Mention applications of bucky ball and carbon nanotubes.
  17. An object is placed at 30 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. Find the position of its image.  OR  Draw the ray diagram to show working of a compound microscope.
  18. What is electrolysis ? Write Faraday's laws of electrolysis.  OR  Mention disadvantages of using direct current(DC).
  19. Mention two categories of solar appliances with examples.
  20. Mention the names and the characteristics of terrestrial planets.


    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each,
    Total marks 15]

  21. Mention the role of nanotechnology in security.
  22. Describe with the help of a diagram how the seven colours of light can be combined to get white light.
  23. Explain : Electric potential and electric potential difference.
  24. Explain : Solar water heater with diagram.  OR  Describe construction and working of a biogas plant(no diagram).
  25. Write a note on Nakshatras.  OR  Mention six uses of artificial satellites.


    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total
    marks 10]

  26. Derive the generalised form of Snell's law.
  27. Derive the expression for equivalent resistance(R) when three resistors R1,R2 and R3 are connected in parallel and find the current flowing through a circuit containing three resistors of 10 Ω, 5 Ω, and 5 Ω connected in parallel with potential difference 4 V.  OR  Describe the principle and working of an electric generator with diagram.
Posted by at No comments:

Wednesday, October 1, 2008

TEST PAPER 8 - UNIT 8 - 25 MARKS

There are 14 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]



  1. The number of genes in human being is about...

    1. 23
    2. 46
    3. 1,000 to 2,000
    4. 30,000 to 40,000

  2. ______ gave Germplasm theory.

    1. Lamarck
    2. Weismann
    3. Darwin
    4. Hugo De Vries

  3. Biological oxygen demand of ______ is the least.

    1. sewage
    2. sea water
    3. pure water
    4. polluted water

  4. ______ is the first step of sewage treatment.

    1. Precipitation
    2. Chlorination
    3. Sedimentation
    4. Aeration

    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]


  5. Define : Heredity.
  6. Mutation is one of the reasons of variation. True or false ?
  7. Mention the major reason for environmental problems.
  8. What is biomagnification ?

    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 6]


  9. Explain : Analogous organs giving example.  OR  Mention components of nucleotides.
  10. Explain : Acid rain.
  11. Describe oxidation pond method.

    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]


  12. Explain Mendel's concept of heredity.
  13. Describe harmful effects of water pollution.  OR   Describe the interrelationship among population, environment and development.

    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]


  14. Describe Watson-Crick model for the structure of DNA with diagram.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 7 - UNIT 7 - 25 MARKS

There are 14 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]



  1. ______ is the complimentary system of nervous system.

    1. Circulatory system
    2. Endocrine system
    3. Lymphatic system
    4. Skeletal system

  2. ______ hormone regulates ionic balance.

    1. Vasopressin
    2. Thyroxin
    3. Glucagon
    4. Testosteron

  3. ______ is a very useful method for developing garden.

    1. Cutting
    2. Layering
    3. Grafting
    4. Budding

  4. The normal weight of human child at the time of birth should be ______.

    1. 1.5 kg
    2. 1.5 to 2.5 kg
    3. 3.0 to 3.5 kg
    4. 5.0 to 6.5 kg

    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]


  5. What is photoperiodism ?
  6. What is meant by autonomous nervous system ?
  7. Give two examples of organisms reproducing by spore formation.
  8. What is vasectomy ?

    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 6]


  9. Mention two characteristics of hormones.
  10. Give two examples of nastic movement.
  11. Mention accessory reproductive glands and their function in human male.  OR   Mention symptoms of sexually transmitted diseases.

    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]


  12. Write in brief about spinal cord.
  13. Describe budding as a method of reproduction.

    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]


  14. Describe female reproductive system in humans with diagram.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 6 - UNIT 6 - 25 MARKS

There are 14 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]



  1. The energy released during cellular respiration is stored in ______.

    1. ATP
    2. glucose
    3. NADPH2
    4. lungs

  2. Cockroach shows ______ mode of nutrition.

    1. herbivorous
    2. carnivorous
    3. omnivorous
    4. grazing

  3. ______ is a necessary mineral for clotting of blood.

    1. Calcium
    2. Potassium
    3. Iron
    4. Zinc

  4. Birds excrete wastes in the form of ______.

    1. urea
    2. proteins
    3. uric acid
    4. water

    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]


  5. What is the aim of nutrition ?
  6. Write the chemical equation for aerobic respiration.
  7. Define : Translocation.
  8. Where are blood antigens located ?

    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 6]


  9. Describe parasitic nutrition.
  10. Describe mechanism of breathing.
  11. Write a note on leucocytes.

    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]


  12. Describe nutrition in amoeba with diagram.
  13. Describe human excretory system with diagram.

    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]


  14. Describe human respiratory system(diagram not needed).  OR  Describe : Phloem with diagram.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 5 - UNIT 5 - 25 MARKS

There are 14 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]



  1. During electrolytic reduction, ______ acts as reducing agent.

    1. anode
    2. cathode
    3. electrolyte
    4. metal

  2. ______ is used for manufacturing scientific balance.

    1. Steel
    2. Brass
    3. Stainless steel
    4. Magnalium

  3. There are ______ nonmetals in solid state.

    1. 11
    2. 12
    3. 13
    4. 14

  4. Sulphur belongs to ______ group in periodic table.

    1. Boron
    2. Carbon
    3. Oxygen
    4. Halogen

    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]


  5. Define : Metallurgy.
  6. What is the use of Van Arkel's method ?
  7. Why do nonmetals not react with dilute acids ?
  8. Which crystalline form of sulphur is most stable ?

    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 6]


  9. Describe roasting with two examples.
  10. Mention four uses of hydrogen.
  11. Describe preparation of sulphur from natural gas.

    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]


  12. Describe extraction of aluminium by Hall-Heroult method with diagram.
  13. Describe manufacture of ammonia and mention its three uses.

    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]


  14. Write a note on chemical reduction method. ORDescribe manufacture of iron using blast furnace.
Posted by at No comments:

Tuesday, September 30, 2008

TEST PAPER 4 - UNIT 4 - 25 MARKS

There are 14 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]



  1. Formation of petroleum in earth's crust is a ______ reaction.

    1. geochemical
    2. biochemical
    3. physiochemical
    4. physical

  2. Pyrex glass is ______.

    1. plasticized glass
    2. polymeric glass
    3. heat-resistant glass
    4. opaque glass

  3. Ethylethanoate is ______.

    1. an alcohol
    2. an acid
    3. an ester
    4. a ketone

  4. Which of the following is not an oxidising agent ?

    1. NaBH4
    2. KMnO4
    3. Cr2O3
    4. Fehling's solution

    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]


  5. Define : Rate of reaction.
  6. State the Law of Mass-Action.
  7. Who prepared Portland cement for the first time ? When ?
  8. What is formalin ?

    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 6]


  9. Explain : Molarity.
  10. Describe manufacture of lime.
  11. Show that the H atom in the -COOH group has acidic nature.

    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]


  12. Describe Ammonia-Soda process to obtain washing soda.
  13. Write chemical properties of formaldehyde giving chemical equations. OR Describe preparation of polyamides(nylon) and give its two uses.

    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]


  14. Write a detailed note on pH.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 3 - UNIT 3 - 25 MARKS

There are 14 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]



  1. What is used generally as a connecting material in solar panels ?

    1. Silicon
    2. Silver
    3. Selenium
    4. Germanium

  2. ______ invented artificial radioactivity.

    1. Marie Curie
    2. Berkley
    3. Lord Rudherford
    4. Maxwell

  3. The mass of earth is ______ times the mass of mercury.

    1. 10
    2. 14
    3. 18
    4. 22

  4. Each nakshatra is an angular region of about ______.

    1. 15° 30'
    2. 14° 40'
    3. 13° 20'
    4. 12° 30'

    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]


  5. What is the wavelength of visible light in meter ?
  6. How is charcoal obtained from wood ?
  7. What is corona ?
  8. What is celestial sphere ?

    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 6]


  9. Mention two advantages and two limitations of solar cooker.
  10. Explain the theory of formation of our solar system.
  11. Explain the installation of artificial satellite by space shuttle.

    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]


  12. Mention six characteristics of ideal fuel.
  13. Write a note on asteroids(six points).

    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]


  14. Write a note on Nuclear reactor with a neat diagram. OR Write a note on galaxy.
Posted by at No comments:

TEST PAPER 2 - UNIT 2 - 25 MARKS

There are 14 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]



  1. The equivalent resistance of three resistors, each of 6 Ω, connected in parallel is ______.

    1. 6 Ω
    2. 18 Ω
    3. 2 Ω
    4. 0.5 Ω

  2. Which of the following is not correct for the electrical work ?

    1. W = VQ
    2. W = VIt
    3. W = I2Rt
    4. W = I2RQ

  3. What is the frequency of current used domestically in India ?

    1. 50 Hz
    2. 60 Hz
    3. 110 Hz
    4. 220 Hz

  4. The principle of magnetic induction was given by ______.

    1. Faraday
    2. Galileo
    3. Oersted
    4. Ampere

    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]


  5. Define : Electrical potential.
  6. What causes resistance in a conductor ?
  7. What is over-loading ?
  8. What is alternating current(AC) ?

    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 6]


  9. State two disadvantages of series connection.
  10. If 300 mA current passes through a lamp, how many electrons will pass through it in 1 minute ?
  11. Explain the work(importance) of a fuse.

    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]


  12. Explain the construction and working of a simple Voltaic cell.
  13. Explain the experiment to show the presence of magnetic field due to electric current.

    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]


  14. Describe Ohm's experiment OR Describe electric motor with neat diagram.
Posted by at No comments:

Monday, September 29, 2008

TEST PAPER 1 - UNIT 1 - 25 MARKS

There are 14 questions in all and time limit is 45 minutes.

SECTION - A : CHOOSE APPROPRIATE ALTERNATIVE : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]



  1. 1 nanometer = ______ cm.

    1. 10-9
    2. 10-8
    3. 10-7
    4. 10-6

  2. The most important property of nanomaterials is ______.

    1. force
    2. friction
    3. pressure
    4. ductility

  3. For a plane mirror, magnification (m) = ______.

    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. +1 or -1
    4. < 1

  4. Blue + Green (light) = ______.

    1. Magenta
    2. Cyan
    3. Yellow
    4. Violet

    SECTION - B : ANSWER IN SHORT : [1 mark each, Total marks 4]


  5. Define : Nanotechnology.
  6. Define : Principal focus of convex lens.
  7. Why does a green leaf appear green ?
  8. Mention the principle of simple microscope.

    SECTION - C : ANSWER IN BRIEF : [2 marks each, Total marks 6]


  9. Explain the use of nanotechnology in diagnostics.
  10. Explain : Regular reflection.
  11. Explain : Near-sightedness(no diagram).

    SECTION - D : ANSWER THE FOLLOWING : [3 marks each, Total marks 6]


  12. Describe the concept of nanotubes.
  13. Describe subtractive method of mixing of pigments.

    SECTION - E : ANSWER IN DETAIL : [5 marks each, Total marks 5]


  14. Derive mirror formula.
Posted by at 6 comments:
Subscribe to: Posts (Atom)